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3 years ago

14

Sarah cycles 30 miles to her grandmother’s house at a steady speed of 10 mph. If she leaves home at 2:00 pm, what time will she

arrive?

1 answer:

AfilCa [17]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

5:00p.m

She is traveling 30 miles and moves 10 miles for each hour therefore 30/10=3

This means she cycled for 3 hours adding this to our time we then have 5p.m

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Rony fills a bucket with water and whirls it in a vertical circle to demonstrate that the water will not spill from the bucket a

Romashka-Z-Leto [24]

Answer:

0 N, 3.49 m/s

Explanation:

Draw a free body diagram for the bucket at the top of the swing. There are two forces acting on the bucket: weight and tension, both downwards.

If we take the sum of the forces in the radial direction, where towards the center is positive:

∑F = ma

W + T = m v² / r

The higher the velocity that Rony swings the bucket, the more tension there will be. The slowest he can swing it is when the tension is 0.

W = m v² / r

mg = m v² / r

g = v² / r

v = √(gr)

Given that r = 1.24 m:

v = √(9.8 m/s² × 1.24 m)

v = 3.49 m/s

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3 years ago

A body is traveling at 5.0 m/s along the positive direction of an x axis; no net force acts on the body. An internal explosion s

loris [4]

To solve this problem it is necessary to apply the concepts related to the conservation of momentum and conservation of kinetic energy.

By definition kinetic energy is defined as

$KE = \frac{1}{2} mv^2$

Where,

m = Mass

v = Velocity

On the other hand we have the conservation of the moment, which for this case would be defined as

$m*V_i = m_1V_1+m_2V_2$

Here,

m = Total mass (8Kg at this case)

$m_1=m_2 =$ Mass each part

$V_i =$ Initial velocity

$V_2 =$ Final velocity particle 2

$V_1 =$ Final velocity particle 1

The initial kinetic energy would be given by,

$KE_i=\frac{1}{2}mv^2$

$KE_i = \frac{1}{2}8*5^2$

$KE_i = 100J$

In the end the energy increased 100J, that is,

$KE_f = KE_i KE_{increased}$

$KE_f = 100+100 = 200J$

By conservation of the moment then,

$m*V_i = m_1V_1+m_2V_2$

Replacing we have,

$(8)*5 = 4*V_1+4*V_2$

$40 = 4(V_1+V_2)$

$V_1+V_2 = 10$

$V_2 = 10-V_1$ (1)

In the final point the cinematic energy of EACH particle would be given by

$KE_f = \frac{1}{2}mv^2$

$KE_f = \frac{1}{2}4*(V_1^2+V_2^2)$

$200J=\frac{1}{2}4*(V_1^2+V_2^2)$ (2)

So we have a system of 2x2 equations

$V_2 = 10-V_1$

$200J=\frac{1}{2}4*(V_1^2+V_2^2)$

Replacing (1) in (2) and solving we have to,

200J=\frac{1}{2}4*(V_1^2+(10-V_1)^2)

PART A: $V_1 = 10m/s$

Then replacing in (1) we have that

PART B: $V_2 = 0m/s$

8 0

3 years ago

Resolve the vector shown below into its components.

yan [13]

Answer:

D. s=3x+4y

Explanation:

The line is at the 3rd column in the 4th row.

7 0

2 years ago

A 4 kg bowling ball moving at 1.4 m/s east impacts a 400 g pin that is stationary. After the impact, the ball is moving at 0.5 m

nignag [31]

The speed of the pin after the elastic collision is 9 m/s east.

<h3>Final speed of the pin</h3>

The final speed of the pin is calculated by applying the principle of conservation of linear momentum as follows;

m1u1 + mu2 = m1v1 + m2v2

where;

m is the mass of the objects
u is the initial speed of the objects
v is the final speed of the objects

4(1.4) + 0.4(0) = 4(0.5) + 0.4v2

5.6 = 2 + 0.4v2

5.6 - 2 = 0.4v2

3.6 = 0.4v2

v2 = 3.6/0.4

v2 = 9 m/s

Thus, The speed of the pin after the elastic collision is 9 m/s east.

Learn more about linear momentum here: brainly.com/question/7538238

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2 years ago

An interference pattern of waves is attributed to:

Andru [333]

Diffusion should be your answer glad to help

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4 years ago