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Anettt [7]
2 years ago
15

Help me please I’ll give brainliest

Physics
1 answer:
Kruka [31]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

zoom in

Explanation:

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A swinging pendulum has a total energy of <img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=E_i" id="TexFormula1" title="E_i" alt="E_i" align="a
Zolol [24]

Answer:

\frac{E_{2}}{E_{1}} \approx 1 -\frac{3\theta}{1-\theta} (for small oscillations)

Explanation:

The total energy of the pendulum is equal to:

E_{1} = m\cdot g \cdot (1-\cos \theta)\cdot L

For small oscillations, the equation can be re-arranged into the following form:

E_{1} \approx m\cdot g \cdot (1-\theta) \cdot L

Where:

\theta = \frac{A}{L^{2}}, measured in radians.

If the amplitude of pendulum oscillations is increase by a factor of 4, the angle of oscillation is 4\theta and the total energy of the pendulum is:

E_{2} \approx m\cdot g \cdot (1-4\theta)\cdot L

The factor of change is:

\frac{E_{2}}{E_{1}} \approx \frac{1 - 4\theta}{1-\theta}

\frac{E_{2}}{E_{1}} \approx 1 -\frac{3\theta}{1-\theta}

3 0
3 years ago
Planets are not uniform inside. Normally, they are densest at the center and have decreasing density outward toward the surface.
elena-s [515]

Answer:

g=13.42\frac{m}{s^2}

Explanation:

1) Notation and info given

\rho_{center}=13000 \frac{kg}{m^3} represent the density at the center of the planet

\rho_{surface}=2100 \frac{kg}{m^3} represent the densisty at the surface of the planet

r represent the radius

r_{earth}=6.371x10^{6}m represent the radius of the Earth

2) Solution to the problem

So we can use a model to describe the density as function of  the radius

r=0, \rho(0)=\rho_{center}=13000 \frac{kg}{m^3}

r=6.371x10^{6}m, \rho(6.371x10^{6}m)=\rho_{surface}=2100 \frac{kg}{m^3}

So we can create a linear model in the for y=b+mx, where the intercept b=\rho_{center}=13000 \frac{kg}{m^3} and the slope would be given by m=\frac{y_2-y_1}{x_2-x_1}=\frac{\rho_{surface}-\rho_{center}}{r_{earth}-0}

So then our linear model would be

\rho (r)=\rho_{center}+\frac{\rho_{surface}-\rho_{center}}{r_{earth}}r

Since the goal for the problem is find the gravitational acceleration we need to begin finding the total mass of the planet, and for this we can use a finite element and spherical coordinates. The volume for the differential element would be dV=r^2 sin\theta d\phi d\theta dr.

And the total mass would be given by the following integral

M=\int \rho (r) dV

Replacing dV we have the following result:

M=\int_{0}^{2\pi}d\phi \int_{0}^{\pi}sin\theta d\theta \int_{0}^{r_{earth}}(r^2 \rho_{center}+\frac{\rho_{surface}-\rho_{center}}{r_{earth}}r)

We can solve the integrals one by one and the final result would be the following

M=4\pi(\frac{r^3_{earth}\rho_{center}}{3}+\frac{r^4_{earth}}{4} \frac{\rho_{surface}-\rho_{center}}{r_{earth}})

Simplyfind this last expression we have:

M=\frac{4\pi\rho_{center}r^3_{earth}}{3}+\pi r^3_{earth}(\rho_{surface}-\rho_{center})

M=\pi r^3_{earth}(\frac{4}{3}\rho_{center}+\rho_{surface}-\rho_{center})

M=\pi r^3_{earth}[\rho_{surface}+\frac{1}{3}\rho_{center}]

And replacing the values we got:

M=\pi (6.371x10^{6}m)^2(\frac{1}{3}13000 \frac{kg}{m^3}+2100 \frac{kg}{m^3})=8.204x10^{24}kg

And now that for any shape the gravitational acceleration is given by:

g=\frac{MG}{r^2_{earth}}=\frac{(6.67408x10^{-11}\frac{m^3}{kgs^2})*8.204x10^{24}kg}{(6371000m)^2}=13.48\frac{m}{s^2}

4 0
2 years ago
What are the opposite ends of a magnet called? A. north and south terminals B. north and south poles C. magnetic fields D. magne
Bezzdna [24]

I think the answer is B.

Hope this helps.

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
You leave on a 450 miles trip in order to attend a meeting that will start 10.8 hours after you begin your trip. Along the way y
Lorico [155]

Answer:2.6 h

Explanation:

Given

Total Trip distance=450 miles

Meeting starts after 10.8 hours

safe Fastest speed is  55 mi/h

so if he drives all the to the meeting with max speed then it takes =\frac{450}{55}=8.181 h

and total allowable time is 10.8

Therefore longest time he can spend over dinner is 10.8-8.181 \approx 2.6 hours

5 0
2 years ago
Can a body have zero velocity and finite acceleration?Explain​
sergejj [24]

Answer:

Kinda? Depends what the question is fully asking

Explanation:

Acceleration is a change in velocity. So I guess if the velocity of something is -2 m/s and its positively accelerating at a value of +1 m/s, then that means every second its velocity changes by +1m/s.

So that -2 m/s thing after one second will be going -1 m/s.

After another second it'll be going 0 m/s.

After another itll be going +1 m/s and so on.

So at one point for a brief moment, it can have an acceleration but be at 0 m/s velocity.

5 0
3 years ago
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