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OLga [1]
3 years ago
15

What causes a ball rolling across the floor to slow down low of motion​

Physics
1 answer:
Savatey [412]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Friction is a force that slows down moving objects. If you roll a ball across a shaggy rug, you can see that there are lumps and bumps in the rug that make the ball slow down. The rubbing, or friction, between the ball and the rug is what makes the ball stop rolling.

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A Venturi tube may be used as a fluid flowmeter. Suppose the device is used at a service station to measure the flow rate of gas
leonid [27]

Answer

given,

flow rate = p = 660 kg/m³

outer radius = 2.8 cm

P₁ - P₂ = 1.20 k Pa

inlet radius = 1.40 cm

using continuity equation

 A₁ v₁ = A₂ v₂

 π r₁² v₁ = π r₁² v₂

 v_1= \dfrac{r_1^2}{r_2^2} v_2

 v_1= \dfrac{1.4^2}{2.8^2} v_2

 v_1= 0.25 v_2

Applying Bernoulli's equation

 \Delta P = \dfrac{1}{2}\rho (v_2^2-v_1^2)

 \Delta P = \dfrac{1}{2}\rho (v_2^2-(0.25 v_2)^2)

 \Delta P = \dfrac{1}{2}\rho v_2^2 (1 - 0.0625)

 v_2=\sqrt{\dfrac{2\Delta P}{\rho(1 - 0.0625)}}

 v_2=\sqrt{\dfrac{2\times 1200}{660 \times(1 - 0.0625)}}

       v₂ = 1.97 m/s

b) fluid flow rate

Q = A₂ V₂

Q = π (0.014)²  x 1.97

Q = 1.21 x 10⁻³ m³/s

5 0
3 years ago
the kinetic energy of an object with mass m moving with a velocity of 5 m/s is 25 j what will be its kinetic energy when its vel
Dmitriy789 [7]

Answer:

100 J, 225 J

Explanation:

The kinetic energy of an object is given by:

K=\frac{1}{2}mv^2

where

m is the mass of the object

v is the velocity of the object

In this problem, the initial kinetic energy of the object is

K = 25 J

Then, the velocity is doubled, which means

v' = 2v

Therefore, the new kinetic energy will be

K'=\frac{1}{2}m(2v)^2 = 4(\frac{1}{2}mv^2)=4K

Therefore, the kinetic energy has quadrupled:

K' = 4(25)=100 J

Later, the velocity is tripled, which means

v'' = 3v

Therefore, the new kinetic energy will be

K''=\frac{1}{2}m(3v)^2 = 9(\frac{1}{2}mv^2)=9K

Therefore, the kinetic energy has increased by a factor of 9:

K' = 9(25)=225 J

4 0
3 years ago
Two plane mirrors are separated by 120°, as the drawing illustrates. If a ray strikes mirror M1 at a θ1 = 64° angle of incidence
tino4ka555 [31]

Angle, θ2 at which the light leaves mirror 2 is 56°

<u>Explanation:</u>

Given-

θ1 = 64°

So, α will also be 64°

According to the figure:

α + β = 90°

So,

β = 90° - α

  = 90° - 64°

  = 26°

β + γ + 120° = 180°

γ = 180° - 120° - β

γ = 180° - 120° - 26°

γ = 34°

γ + δ = 90°

δ = 90° - γ

δ = 90° - 34°

δ = 56°

According to the law of reflection,

angle of incidence = angle of reflection

θ2 = δ = 56°

Therefore, angle θ2 at which the light leaves mirror 2 is 56°

8 0
2 years ago
Starting from rest, a 2.1x10^-4 kg flea springs straight upward. While the flea is pushing off from the ground, the ground exert
Rainbow [258]

Answer:

a) The flea's speed when it leaves the ground is v=1.88m/s

b) The flea move 18cm upward while it is pushing off

Explanation:

Hi

<u>Knwons</u>

Mass m=2.1\times 10^{-4} kg, Work W=3.7\times 10^{-4} J and Force F=0.41N

a) Here we are going to use W=\frac{1}{2} mv^{2}, so v=\sqrt{\frac{2W}{m} }= \sqrt{\frac{2(3.7\times 10^{-4} J)}{2.1\times 10^{-4} kg} }=1.88m/s

a) Here we are going to use W=mgh, so h=\frac{W}{mg}= \frac{3.7\times 10^{-4} J}{(2.1\times 10^{-4} kg)(9.8m/s^{2})} =0,1797m or 18cm approx.

7 0
3 years ago
Can someone help with this???
Rus_ich [418]

no BECQUSE POSUM BROOB SHSHSJ

8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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