All categories

3 years ago

Please please please help

Physics

1 answer:

zvonat [6]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

The result is an unbalanced force to the right or acting in the a-axis.

Explanation:

For the first diagram, we propose a sum of forces on the X & y axes and include these forces arithmetically, i.e. the upward forces with a positive sign and the downward forces with a negative sign. Forces to the right with positive sign and forces to the left with negative sign.

ΣFx = 0

+ 1 +3 = Fx

Fx = 4 [N] (units of Newtons]

ΣFy = 0

-2 + 2 = Fy

Fy = 0

Therefore the result is an unbalanced force to the right or acting in the a-axis.

You might be interested in

How many electrons make up a charge of - 30.0 μc?

Ymorist [56]

Each electron has a charge of

$q=-1.6 \cdot 10^{-19}C$

In this problem, the total charge is

$Q=-30.0 \mu C=-30.0 \cdot 10^{-6} C$

Therefore, the number of electrons contained in this total charge will be given by the total charge divided by the charge of a single electron:

$N=\frac{Q}{q}=\frac{-30.0 \cdot 10^{-6} C}{-1.6 \cdot 10^{-19} C}=1.88 \cdot 10^{14}$

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A golf ball is released from rest from the top of a very tall building. Choose a coordinate system whose origin is at the starti

Zigmanuir [339]

Answer:

Velocity of the ball after 3.04 (s) = 29.79 (m/s)

Explanation:

From the free fall movement we have the following formulas: $Vf^{2} = Vo^{2} - 2gh$ and $h=Vo*t - \frac{g*t^{2} }{2}$ , First we need to find the height to time iqual to 3.04 s using the formula: $h=Vo*t - \frac{g*t^{2} }{2}$ and remember that golf ball was released from the rest (Vo= 0 (m/s)) so $h= (0 (m/s))*(3.04 (s)) - \frac{9.8 (m/s^2)*(3.04 (s))^{2} }{2}$ , we get: h = -45.28 (m) with the height that we have got, now the velocity of the ball is calculate using $Vf^{2} = Vo^{2} - 2gh$ solving for Vf, we get: $Vf = \sqrt{Vo^{2}-2*g*h }$ replacing the values given $Vf = \sqrt{(0 m/s)^{2}-2*(9.8 m/s^2)*(-45.28 m) }$ , so we get: Vf = 29.79 (m/s).

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

If the AMA of the inclined plane below is 2, calculate the IMA and efficiency. IMA = Efficiency =

wlad13 [49]

Answer:

IMA = 2.5 metres

EFFICIENCY = 80%

Explanation:

The AMA of a machine is referred to as the Actual Mechanical Advantage of a machine, calculated as the ratio of the output to the input force.

The Ideal Mechanical Advantage is the ratio of the input distance to the output distance.

From the diagram, the input distance which is also the distance moved by effort = 5metres

The load distance (output distance) = 2 metres

IMA = INPUT DISTANCE / OUTPUT DISTANCE

IMA = 5metres / 2 metres = 2.5 meters

Efficiency is the ratio of AMA TO IMA

AMA = 2, IMA = 2.5

EFFICIENCY = AMA / IMA

EFFICIENCY = (2 / 2.5) × 100%= 0.8 × 100%

EFFICIENCY = 80%

5 0

2 years ago

Can someone help me with this Physics question please?

strojnjashka [21]

Answer:

Explanation:

The formula for this, the easy one, is

$N=N_0(\frac{1}{2})^{\frac{t}{H}$ where No is the initial amount of the element, t is the time in years, and H is the half life. Filling in:

$N=48.0(\frac{1}{2})^{\frac{49.2}{12.3}$ and simplifying a bit:

$N=48.0(.5)^4$ and

N = 48.0(.0625) so

N = 3 mg left after 12.3 years

6 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A Chef is looking for a new frying pan that will allow her to cook food quickly at temperatures above 500°C. Use the data provid

makvit [3.9K]

Answer:

Explanation:

1st one

What is your evidence?

Very heavy professional or restaurant pans will have iron handles, while those for home use will be made of brass or stainless steel. All are perfectly safe for oven use.

6 0

2 years ago