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3 years ago

Does gravity always include the Earth’s pull or can it be between other objects?

2 answers:

7 0

Well other planets have a gravitational pull that's what keep the planet's orbiting the sun. But the amount of gravity differs by mass.

Hope this helps :)

sammy [17]3 years ago

4 0

What a great question !

There is a pair of forces of gravity (one in each direction) between EVERY two specks of mass in all of creation.

-- Between you and the Earth.

-- Between the Moon and the Earth.

-- Between the Moon and you.

-- Between you and your dog.

-- Between your dog and your goldfish.

-- Between every pair of corn flakes in your cereal bowl.

-- Between the lint in your pocket and every grain of sand on the beach on the far side of the farthest planet in orbit around the farthest star in the farthest galaxy on the other side of the Universe. You don't feel it, and it's too small to measure, but its strength can be calculated.

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The family is the principal social agent for a. Children. C. Parents. B. Teenagers. D. The elderly. Please select the best answe

Sidana [21]

hope this helps A children

5 0

3 years ago

Find the moments of inertia Ix, Iy, I0 for a lamina that occupies the part of the disk x2 y2 ≤ 36 in the first quadrant if the d

Tasya [4]

Answer:

I(x) = 1444×k × ${\pi}$

I(y) = 1444×k × ${\pi}$

I(o) = 3888×k × ${\pi}$

Explanation:

Given data

function = x^2 + y^2 ≤ 36

function = x^2 + y^2 ≤ 6^2

to find out

the moments of inertia Ix, Iy, Io

solution

first we consider the polar coordinate (a,θ)

and polar is directly proportional to a²

so p = k × a²

so that

x = a cosθ

y = a sinθ

dA = adθda

I(x) = ∫y²pdA

take limit 0 to 6 for a and o to $\pi /2$ for θ

I(x) = $\int_{0}^{6}\int_{0}^{\pi/2}$ y²p dA

I(x) = $\int_{0}^{6}\int_{0}^{\pi/2}$ (a sinθ)²(k × a²) adθda

I(x) = k $\int_{0}^{6}a^(5)$ da × $\int_{0}^{\pi/2}$ (sin²θ)dθ

I(x) = k $\int_{0}^{6}a^(5)$ da × $\int_{0}^{\pi/2}$ (1-cos2θ)/2 dθ

I(x) = k $({r}^{6}/6)^(5)_0$ × ${θ/2 - sin2θ/4}^{\pi /2}_0$

I(x) = k × $({6}^{6}/6)$ × ( ${\pi /4} - sin\pi /4)$

I(x) = k × $({6}^{5})$ × ${\pi /4}$

I(x) = 1444×k × ${\pi}$ .....................1

and we can say I(x) = I(y) by the symmetry rule

and here I(o) will be I(x) + I(y) i.e

I(o) = 2 × 1444×k × ${\pi}$

I(o) = 3888×k × ${\pi}$ ......................2

3 0

3 years ago

The lower the value of the coefficient of friction,the_the resistance to sliding

malfutka [58]

Answer:

lower

Explanation:

The lower the value of the coefficient of friction, the lower the resistance to sliding.

The coefficient of friction is the ratio of the frictional force and the normal force pressing two surfaces in contact together.

U = $\frac{F}{N}$

U is the coefficient of friction

F is the frictional force

N is the normal force

We see that coefficient of friction is directly proportional to frictional force.

7 0

3 years ago

Atoms that are bonded together to form a new material with new<br> properties and characteristics. .

mihalych1998 [28]

Answer:

Explanation:

Atoms form chemical bonds to make their outer electron shells more stable. ... An ionic bond, where one atom essentially donates an electron to another, forms when one atom becomes stable by losing its outer electrons and the other atoms become stable (usually by filling its valence shell) by gaining the electrons.

7 0

3 years ago

Please help

Snezhnost [94]

Answer:

Range = 22.61 m

Explanation:

We can use the formula for the Range in flat ground, given by:

$Range=v_i^2\frac{sin(2\theta)}{g}$