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FromTheMoon [43]
3 years ago
13

Water flows from the bottom of a large tank where the pressure is 100 psig through a pipe to a turbine which produces 5.82 hp. T

he pipe leading from the turbine is 60 ft below the bottom of the tank. In this pipe the pressure is 50psig, the velocity 70 ft/, and the flow rate 100 lb/s. If the friction loss in the system, excluding the turbine, is 40 ft*Ib/Ibm, find the efficiency of the turbine.
Chemistry
1 answer:
Marianna [84]3 years ago
4 0

Explanation:

Bernoulli equation for the flow between bottom of the tank and pipe exit point is as follows.

   \frac{p_{1}}{\gamma} + \frac{V^{2}_{1}}{2g} + z_{1} = \frac{p_{2}}{\gamma} + \frac{V^{2}_{2}}{2g} + z_{2} + h_{f} + h_{t}

    \frac{(100 \times 144)}{62.43} + 0 + h[tex] = [tex]\frac{(50 \times 144)}{(62.43)} + \frac{(70)^{2}}{2(32.2)} + 0 + 40 + 60

                          h = \frac{(50 \times 144)}{(62.43)} + \frac{(70)^{2}}{2(32.2)} + 40 + 60 - \frac{(100 \times 144)}{(62.43)}

                            = 60.76 ft

Hence, formula to calculate theoretical power produced by the turbine is as follows.

                                 P = mgh

                                     = 100 \times 60.76

                                     = 6076 lb.ft/s

                                     = 11.047 hp

Efficiency of the turbine will be as follows.

                \eta_{t} = \frac{P_{actual}}{P_{theoretical}} × 100%

                                = \frac{5.82}{11.047} \times 100%                      

                                = 52.684%

Thus, we can conclude that the efficiency of the turbine is 52.684%.

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